[delacoert]

In post #56 you now ask: What difference does it make to the individual to whom either is done?

But in post #5 you first asked: Unless this priest made sure he was only giving last rights to Catholics, is what he did any different from what some Mormons did?

Have you abandoned the more general debate you began in post #5 while conceding nothing and changing your question?

I am willing to discuss your new question, but I am wondering if you are conceding that there are "any" differences.

[MEGoody]

I am willing to discuss your new question

I don't consider it a new question, but you may if you wish. At any rate, what is your answer?

What difference does it make to the individual to whom either is done?