“The Jews then disputed among themselves, saying, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” (John 6:52).
The fact that the Jews questioned the words of Jesus tells us that they understood Jesus’ words literally.
As a christian, I was taught to know my bible.
From John 3: As Jesus talked with Nicodemus, He said "...Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." Nicodemus said to Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? Can he enter a second time into his mother's womb and be born?"
Obviously, since questioned by a Jew, Jesus was speaking literally.../s
There is an avalanche of evidence is support of the Catholic understanding and absolutely none to support the Protestant contention. Jesus was not speaking symbolically. The only refutation offered by Protestantism is opinion, as no proof exists.
Just my 'protestant' opinion...
Matter of fact, Jesus explains Himself right in John 3:5, “Jesus answered: Amen, amen I say to thee, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” Both John 3 and John 6 have this in common: a startling statement is meant by Jesus, the unbeliever asks to clarify, and Jesus does. In John 3 He explains that the second birth is baptism, in John 6 that His flesh is “food indeed”. Further, in both cases Jesus insists on the sacramental character of baptism and of the Eucharist: they are what they signify, water gives a rebirth and His flesh quickens the spirit. In neither John 3 or John 6 Jesus says “eh, I only meant it symbolically”.