You are correct, the phrase you used was “hundreds of millions”:
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2023605/posts?page=9807#9807
And here you claimed that the papacy “owned” Europe from 500 AD until 1800 (This is even more difficult to establish than your claim about the number of deaths; while we would have a difficult time finding an honest accounting of deaths and who was responsible, we have no problem looking back at the nation building that went on from about 800 AD onward):
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2023605/replies?c=10782
Yes it is the phrase I used, and I don't think it is unlikely at all. Estimates range from 50m to 500m, as best as I know. I think something between 150m and 250m is likely. Where would you put the toll? What would you own up to?
And here you claimed that the papacy owned Europe from 500 AD until 1800
For the record, the link you provided was incorrect. You were probably pointing to: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2023605/posts?page=11088#11088
Yes, I said that, and meant it, too... my explanation thereof is in that lost post... There was no other entity in the otherwise fractured Roman states that had ubiquitous power throughout, with both international and interstate authority (and free passage) and internal authority to include boots-on-the-ground right down to the township and borough level. That kind of influence makes or breaks kings (and did), regardless of whatever may look to be going on.