“...and I absolve you from your sins....”
No other priests say this save the Latin ones to my knowledge. If what Rome means is the patristic understanding, then I suspect Rome could say that. Your patristic quotes are fine, Alex, but it doesn’t change what the Latin priest says. It all reminds me of the arguments about the filioque where Rome posits that it means something other than what it says.
This is tautological: no other priest uses Latin prayers (translated or not) save Latin Rite priests. You have to look at the entire prayer, including the "may God give you pardon" and "in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit". The absolution formula does not reflect anything not inthe Catechism, and the Catechism does not reflect anything not in the Bible.
Let me ask you this: suppose Stavros comes to his Orthodox priest and confesses that he lives and shares the bed with his girlfriend despite being married to another woman who he had abandoned. He has no intention to move out or move the girlfriend out. How would the priest witness the lack of absolution without himself, as a free-willed man, taking the decision not to absolve?