This is tautological: no other priest uses Latin prayers (translated or not) save Latin Rite priests. You have to look at the entire prayer, including the "may God give you pardon" and "in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit". The absolution formula does not reflect anything not inthe Catechism, and the Catechism does not reflect anything not in the Bible.
Let me ask you this: suppose Stavros comes to his Orthodox priest and confesses that he lives and shares the bed with his girlfriend despite being married to another woman who he had abandoned. He has no intention to move out or move the girlfriend out. How would the priest witness the lack of absolution without himself, as a free-willed man, taking the decision not to absolve?
“How would the priest witness the lack of absolution without himself, as a free-willed man, taking the decision not to absolve?”
That’s easy, Alex. He simply would not read the absolution prayers. The priest does not absolve; he is merely a witness and a conduit as the words of the Mystery make clear. If God is doing the absolving in the Latin Rite of the Mystery, why does the priest say “Absolvo te”? No other rite makes that presumption. Personally, I think it has to do with, among other things, a different concept of the meaning of priesthood as between the Latins on the one hand and the other particular churches within The Church on the other.