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To: blue-duncan
These examples are not moral messages for others but tests of the individual’s commitment and loyalty.

Why, because God is unsure?

The difference between testing and temptation is in the intent of the initiator

Not necessarily. Job is an example where God practically accepts a "bet" from Satan as if to prove him wrong. God allows Satan to do whatever he wants but not to harm Job. What was the test? It seems almost like a cruel game, with rules and limits, with the outcome clearly known to God.

When God subjected Jesus to hunger in the desert it was to test him in his reliance on God but when Satan tempted him in the same situation it was to sin by relying on himself to perform a miracle to satisy his personal hunger.

Christians believe Jesus is God and Man at the same time, one Person, divine and human, unconfused. So, to say "God" subjected Him to hunger sounds, well, "Pauline."

My question to you is: was there any time that Christ had any doubt or wondered if He would be able to resist the temptation and pass the test? Is there any possibiliyt that Vhrist could have failed the test/tempattion?

If not, then what was the purpose of the test/temptation?

The whole concept of Jesus being subjected to test/temptation is an oxymoron in the context of the developed Christian theology of His divinity.

But not if Jesus is seen as the Jewish Messiah, anointed, but not divine. In fact, the synaptic Gospels very much express such an image of a Jewish Messiah, who is a favorite of God, anointed, but not divine. Christ is never called divine; none of the Apostles pray to him or to the Holy Spirit, even after the Resurrection.

The divinity of Jesus is introduced for the first time in the NT in John's Gospel, written at the very end of the 1st century (and as such should be placed at the very end of the bible and not after the Gospel of Luke), when the Christian doctrine had fully evolved and Christ's divinity had become a matter of faith.

2,502 posted on 02/20/2008 8:06:35 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50

“What was the test? It seems almost like a cruel game, with rules and limits, with the outcome clearly known to God.” that’s what Job thought until God met him,

Job 42:1-6, “Then Job answered the LORD, and said, I know that thou canst do every thing, and that no thought can be withholden from thee. Who is he that hideth counsel without knowledge? therefore have I uttered that I understood not; things too wonderful for me, which I knew not.

4 Hear, I beseech thee, and I will speak: I will demand of thee, and declare thou unto me. I have heard of thee by the hearing of the ear: but now mine eye seeth thee. Wherefore I abhor myself, and repent in dust and ashes.”

“The whole concept of Jesus being subjected to test/temptation is an oxymoron in the context of the developed Christian theology of His divinity.”

“So, to say “God” subjected Him to hunger sounds, well, “Pauline.” That’s not what history tells us.

Matt, 4:1, “Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil.”

“My question to you is: was there any time that Christ had any doubt or wondered if He would be able to resist the temptation and pass the test?”

Matt. 26:37-39, “And he took with him Peter and the two sons of Zebedee, and began to be sorrowful and very heavy. Then saith he unto them, My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death: tarry ye here, and watch with me. And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.”

Matt. 27:46, “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?”

Heb. 5:7-9,”Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;”

“Christ is never called divine; none of the Apostles pray to him or to the Holy Spirit, even after the Resurrection.”

Why would they pray to any one but the Father when He is the one Jesus commanded us to pray to? Jesus intercedes for us and the Holy spirit helps our infirmities in prayer. they are interceding for us when we pray to the Father who knows our needs.

Matt. 6:7-13, “But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking. Be not ye therefore like unto them: for your Father knoweth what things ye have need of, before ye ask him.

9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread. And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors. And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever.”

John 16:23, “And in that day ye shall ask me nothing. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.”

“The divinity of Jesus is introduced for the first time in the NT in John’s Gospel,”

No, it is introduced in Matt. 1:23, “Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.”


2,509 posted on 02/20/2008 8:41:02 PM PST by blue-duncan
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To: kosta50; blue-duncan
The divinity of Jesus is introduced for the first time in the NT in John's Gospel, written at the very end of the 1st century (and as such should be placed at the very end of the bible and not after the Gospel of Luke), when the Christian doctrine had fully evolved and Christ's divinity had become a matter of faith. (emphasis added)

Kosta, from our conversations and now here, this timing problem of yours is getting way out of hand. :) From your above, it sounds like you are saying that Christians didn't believe that Christ was God until John was written 60 or 70 years after the fact. Is that right? When I brought this type of thing up before you said, in effect, that nobody else heard it so it didn't exist until it was written in the Gospels. IOW, nothing COUNTS until it was written later (an ironic view from an Orthodox perspective :). Anyway, what do you say was taught orally until the Gospels were written? If nothing counts until it is written then there was nothing to teach!! :)

3,069 posted on 02/26/2008 3:00:55 AM PST by Forest Keeper (It is a joy to me to know that God had my number, before He created numbers.)
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