“BTW, the millions of unbelieving Jews who died in Jerusalem during the “days of vengeance” did not consider Rome a paper tiger. Nor did the disciples who fled when they saw the abomination of desolation (Jerusalem surrounded by armies)”
“I now take it you are affirming that the cloud imagery is appropriate for AD70,”
There was no “clouds of heaven” at the destruction of Jerusalem in fulfillment of what Jesus told the high priest. It is a preterist fantasy to avoid the obvious scripture of the last days. Now you are saying Jesus did not mean what he said to the high priest, he was only speaking figuratively about the high priest actually seeing him.
Did the high priest see Jesus in 70 A.D.? Did he or any person alive in 70 A.D. know that what they saw in the Roman army was Jesus exercising judgment on unbelieving Israel? There is no scriptural testimony to that event by any apostle or writer. No on says Jesus came again at that time.
“the final white throne judgment, which is not a cloud coming at all, and has no such language.”
Absolutely amazing. Here, let me repeat what you have previously written, “Jesus’ use of the phrase “coming in clouds” comes from the OT and is a symbolic phrase that can be used to describe God’s coming in temporal judgment against a nation”. Why would you need the metaphor when you are describing the actual seat of power and judgment.
I don't, but I'm not the one that has a problem with hyperliteralism. You're the inconsistent one, applying the "literal when convenient" hermeneutical method. I was just pointing out the inconsistency.