I realize you must still be struggling with the issues I raised in post #734 so I will not distract you by replying to this post at this time. Perhaps the Greek and Hebrew are giving you a hard time.
In any event, I want to give you as much opportunity as you need to respond fully and carefully to that post.
“I realize you must still be struggling with the issues I raised in post #734”
There is no struggle. It is a masculine noun derived from the word meaning to cover or conceal. Over 3/4th of the time it is used for the pillar of cloud that led Israel, but it is never used in the preterist sense of a company of men in the Old Testament. It is used mostly as a representation of the awesome presence/glory of God when not as weather or metaphors for the gossamer nature of things. The Jews at the time of Christ would have recognized its use as representating the glory as in Matthew 23:39, “For I say unto you, Ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord”; not some obscure “you will see me in the pagan hordes coming to destroy the temple”.
So now answer the questions:
How do you reconcile Matthew 23:39 with 24:30 and 26:64?
If Israel and the priests in particular did not recognize the destruction of the temple as the judgment of God for their rejection of Messiah how did they “see” him in the pagan hordes and of what value is the punishment to those who did not recognize it as punishment?