They are speaking of two different events that occur at two different times.
That's your theory, which you cannot substantiate. On the other hand, any plain reading of the texts sees the parallel and would be in harmony with a fulfillment to "this generation" in the events of AD70.
That's your theory, which you cannot substantiate. On the other hand, any plain reading of the texts sees the parallel and would be in harmony with a fulfillment to "this generation" in the events of AD70.
No, that can be seen by just comparing the two in clear English.
Only by Jesuit-like mental gymnastics could anyone think otherwise.
You are letting your theology determine your scriptural interpetation.