That's your theory, which you cannot substantiate. On the other hand, any plain reading of the texts sees the parallel and would be in harmony with a fulfillment to "this generation" in the events of AD70.
No, that can be seen by just comparing the two in clear English.
Only by Jesuit-like mental gymnastics could anyone think otherwise.
You are letting your theology determine your scriptural interpetation.
To be more specific, he is letting his preterism determine his scriptural interpretation.