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To: topcat54; Uncle Chip
[That is pure nonsense,]

Such silly statements do not help with your argument against the obvious parallel between Matt 24:15 and Luke 21:20. It only proves the fundamental irrationality of the entire dispensational system.

Luke is not explaining Matthew.

They are speaking of two different events that occur at two different times.

Luke says that this is the day of vegeance (vs.22), while in Matthew, it is the time of tribulation.

Nothing is said in Luke about it being the worst tribulation in history, but it is vegeance for the Jews crucifying their Messiah.

Vs.25 of Luke shifts to the Tribulation of Matthew.

And these passage have to do with Premillenialism vs Amillenialism.

303 posted on 11/07/2007 1:31:18 PM PST by fortheDeclaration (We must beat the Democrats or the country will be ruined! - Lincoln)
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To: fortheDeclaration; Uncle Chip; Lee N. Field; Dr. Eckleburg; 1000 silverlings; Lord_Calvinus
Luke is not explaining Matthew.

They are speaking of two different events that occur at two different times.

That's your theory, which you cannot substantiate. On the other hand, any plain reading of the texts sees the parallel and would be in harmony with a fulfillment to "this generation" in the events of AD70.

308 posted on 11/07/2007 1:56:46 PM PST by topcat54 ("Dispensationalism is a disease ... as contagious as polio.")
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