That means Mary sinned as do all men, but she was declared righteous by a work of Christ as are all born again, (saved) men,...
I don't see how it means that she sinned. What it explicitly says is that, through no work of her own she was made sinless by "prevenient" grace. How does it mean she sinned?
Here is the bottom line. Only one that never sinned could take the sin and the curse on himself , Mary could not have done that because like all the saints she was freed from the guilt of sin ONLY through the death of Christ.
Yes. Correct. No argument there. She was sinless, as the above quoted passage says, through the grace of God and the work of Christ.
When we say it's all gift, and our interlocutors don't believe that we mean it, what can we do? We keep saying "full of Grace" and we are told we MUST mean full of good works. We say, the declaration (name slips my mind) of the Immaculate Conception explicitly says Mary was made sinless through the grace of Christ. And to Him and to the Father in the Unity of the Holy Spirit always be the glory.
Sin is defined as a violation of the law. The Catechism says ONLY CHRIST KEPT THE LAW PERFECTLY or could keep the law perfectly. That HAS to mean that mary DID NOT keep the law PERFECTLY , therefore she broke it at some point or points, that would mean she sinned. Scripture says if you break one law you have broken them all.
Yes. Correct. No argument there. She was sinless, as the above quoted passage says, through the grace of God and the work of Christ
Being freed from GUILT is different than NOT being guilty. All of the elect are freed from the guilt of sin, but that does not mean we have not or do not sin.
Hbr 10:2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.
Hbr 10:22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.