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To: wagglebee
You cannot provide a single shred of evidence that the Church has ever taught anything about ignoring part of the Bible.

Does the Catholic Church agree with the criteria for bishops in I Timothy 3:2-5?

29 posted on 02/23/2007 9:54:44 AM PST by Sloth (The GOP is to DemonRats in politics as Michael Jackson is to Jeffrey Dahmer in babysitting.)
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To: Sloth

Yes: "2 It behoveth therefore a bishop to be blameless, the husband of one wife, sober, prudent, of good behaviour, chaste, given to hospitality, a teacher, 3 Not given to wine, no striker, but modest, not quarrelsome, not covetous, but 4 One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all chastity. 5 But if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?

2 "Of one wife"... The meaning is not that every bishop should have a wife (for St. Paul himself had none), but that no one should be admitted to the holy orders of bishop, priest, or deacon, who had been married more than once. "


33 posted on 02/23/2007 10:03:41 AM PST by fogofbobegabay
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