Is this a theological difference between Catholics and Orthodox? Unless I am misunderestimating, Jo would never make a statement like the section I bolded. Ever. Am I correct in assuming that you're using the other free choices as equal examples of Mary's choice? I find two corollaries to your statement very interesting. One, that Mary ever NEEDED to accept God, and two, that since she made a free will decision to do so, that there was an actual real time before that when she had not yet decided for God.
Kosta, when you say "on her own", now you're talking my language! :) That's one thing I have been trying to show as your belief all along. It does appear to be one peril of using the free will argument. How far do you carry it out? Is your position that men are born with enough goodness to freely choose God INDEPENDENTLY of any separate action, after birth, on our hearts by God?
As for Adam, he could have repented, but God knew he wouldn't. Yet God did not stop Him, not for His own purpose to see Adam fall and suffer, but because otherwise Adam would not be free, but a robot. ...
So, then to be absolutely clear, under your belief, God's love for us means that He prizes our freedom of choice for the eighty years or so that we "might" be on earth FAR AND ABOVE OVER where we will spend eternity. That is God's love for us.
I am not comfortable with "on her own". I am not positive on what Kosta means, I think he will agree that Mary did not choose God without God. However, the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception relies strictly on God's initiative - Mary was saved the loss of sanctifying grace at her birth. We believe that this gift and His continuing graces allowed Mary to remain sinless through out her life (which the Orthodox also believe). I believe our point of disagreement is not over whether Mary sinned or not, but how Mary was able to remain sinless. We believe God gave her a singular grace, along with Mary's own pure will (purified by God), while I believe the Orthodox think that Mary was sinless as a result of her raised theosis/divinization.
Is your position that men are born with enough goodness to freely choose God INDEPENDENTLY of any separate action, after birth, on our hearts by God?
Catholics believe this is dangerously close to Pelagianism. The Council of Orange, later reaffirmed by Trent, specifically stated that men cannot come to God alone - that HE must lead them. Every single person came to God (including Mary) as a result of God's initial calling.
So, then to be absolutely clear, under your belief, God's love for us means that He prizes our freedom of choice for the eighty years or so that we "might" be on earth FAR AND ABOVE OVER where we will spend eternity. That is God's love for us.
The singer "Sting" said it best "If you love someone, set them free". What sort of freedom and eternal happiness is God giving a person by FORCING them to be in heaven? I am detecting a fundamental difference between what you believe happens in heaven and what the Scriptures state. Heaven is not just an earthly paradise (like the Muslims think). Heaven is total spiritual union with God. How is that going to happen if a person has totally separated themselves from God's love on this earth? God is granting what that person desires - an eternal life without Him AND showing His justice to us, as well.
Regards