Perhaps, but by your logic, you state that God has directed that person A will sin in this way and will go to hell, according to God's plan. What we say is that God KNOWS and SEES the person sinning, however, he does not plan, he does not force someone to Hell. The person chooses it of his own choice.
As a genuinely intended compliment, I'd say you are pretty close to seeing what we believe. :) Look, the whole issue here is causation, right? God's overt action obviously "causes" things to happen. Does God's purposeful inaction also "cause" a result. I say 'Yes' because God has the absolute authority to determine. If God is all powerful, then to me, an omission to act is just as powerful as an overt act.
Is God's plan independent of man's actions because God determines everything (including allowing sin to occur without interference)? Or, is God's plan dependent on man's actions because He "respects" our choices and will accomplish His goals by working around all of the choices made by man? I hold that it is the former. When God already knows the result, His purposeful inaction I would count as a causation through knowing omission. I believe this is perfectly consistent with my prior statements that God is not the author of evil. To further His plan, God allows man to succumb to his own nature and sin happens. I am only arguing that on this level, omission counts as action when the actor has all authority. To be absolutely clear, I say again that God is not the author of any evil.