I humbly ask you to explain the leap of logic of going from "foreknows" to "WHY God SAVES a person" in your snippet. Because I foreknow, it doesn't follow that I save someone... I can read too, but I am having trouble making the leap.
Regards
If you read the article you tell me. Bishop Minatios makes the claim that I snipped from the article; that Jacob was saved because God foreknew him to be good. Then Bishop Minatios claims that no one can understand predestination. If no one can understand predestination why is Bishop Minatios trying to explain it? And my logic is questioned here?!?
Since everyone is complaining about my interpretation of the article, I would suggest someone else write up the Cliff Notes and summarize Bishop Minatios' article. He's still wrong and (going back to this article) it supports the Pelagius error of man's free will as addressed in this article-not my definition.