Replies

It was the completion of the Passover Seder.

This sounds suspiciously like Hauhn's book to me . I do not care for him because he seems makes up theology as he goes along.

Mar 14:24 And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many.

Mar 14:25 Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God.

He was not dead, He was not in the kingdom when he "drank" the vinegar off the sponge....not a cup

Mat 26:29 But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom.

They were not in the Kingdom and He did not drink it from a cup with them

Luk 22:18 For I say unto you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, until the kingdom of God shall come.

I suspect you mean "Hahn"... and while I haven't read such a book (and have had problems with a couple of his recent thoughts - like the HS being female), I am familiar with his thoughts on the topic.

They were not in the Kingdom and He did not drink it from a cup with them

The fourth cup was "the Cup of the Kingdom", so whenever He drank it was the announcement of the Kingdom. There's also some question as to which "kingdom" is being announced. And, since the modern-day Eucharist IS a sharing/representing of that sacrifice He would be drinking it "with us".

What explanation do have for Jesus skipping the fourth cup of the Seder? This was essentially the consummating act of the Seder - is the passover not complete without it?

BTW - I'm not aware that this is some "official" Catholic teaching - I'm on my own here.

Also, on your earlier point... how does it reconcile with "He was raised for our justification"?