[IMRight]

I suspect you mean "Hahn"... and while I haven't read such a book (and have had problems with a couple of his recent thoughts - like the HS being female), I am familiar with his thoughts on the topic.

They were not in the Kingdom and He did not drink it from a cup with them

The fourth cup was "the Cup of the Kingdom", so whenever He drank it was the announcement of the Kingdom. There's also some question as to which "kingdom" is being announced. And, since the modern-day Eucharist IS a sharing/representing of that sacrifice He would be drinking it "with us".

What explanation do have for Jesus skipping the fourth cup of the Seder? This was essentially the consummating act of the Seder - is the passover not complete without it?

BTW - I'm not aware that this is some "official" Catholic teaching - I'm on my own here.

Also, on your earlier point... how does it reconcile with "He was raised for our justification"?

[Invincibly Ignorant]

What explanation do have for Jesus skipping the fourth cup of the Seder?

Just because it isn't mentioned doesn't mean it was skipped.

[IMRight]

I forgot another point. Remember that Christ did not just drink the sour wine because He was thirsty. Of course He was thirsty - He must have been incredibly thirsty for hours yet specifically refuse offers of wine. He asked for it here specifically "to fulfill the prophesy".

What "prophesy" do you see that fulfilling?

[ksen]

(and have had problems with a couple of his recent thoughts - like the HS being female)

Well if that's the case then maybe the lavender mafia isn't so far off. (Lk 1:35)