What you wrote seems to go against American traditions and American common law.
Heterosexual sodomy was illegal until 1960 in all states, and only recently have state courts and state legislature begun to desmantle anti-sodomy laws applying to heterosexuals.
What was the compelling state interest to regulate heterosexual sodomy until 1960?
I don't know why, maybe for cultural reasons and the slippery slope that homosexuals might want to compare themselves to heterosexuals? Opps that already happened. Can you cite any legislature before 1960 that defined sodomy as "heterosexual" as the distinguishing context.
Cultural norms. It's hard not to notice that all kinds of sexual deviancy, and the effects thereof, took off in the 1960s.