[Clint N. Suhks]

What was the compelling state interest to regulate heterosexual sodomy until 1960?

I don't know why, maybe for cultural reasons and the slippery slope that homosexuals might want to compare themselves to heterosexuals? Opps that already happened. Can you cite any legislature before 1960 that defined sodomy as "heterosexual" as the distinguishing context.

[george wythe]

What was the compelling state interest to regulate heterosexual sodomy until 1960?

I don't know why, maybe for cultural reasons and the slippery slope that homosexuals might want to compare themselves to heterosexuals?

Is that a compelling state interest?

Do you have a source for that? Or are you just pulling silly arguments out of your hat?

[george wythe]

Can you cite any legislature before 1960 that defined sodomy as "heterosexual" as the distinguishing context

I'm not aware of any such law.

That's why the Texas sodomy law was ripe for overturning.

Sodomy laws applied only to homosexuals and bisexuals was a novel idea not grounded on our traditions, or our common law, or our Constitution.