Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article

To: Clint N. Suhks
Can you cite any legislature before 1960 that defined sodomy as "heterosexual" as the distinguishing context

I'm not aware of any such law.

That's why the Texas sodomy law was ripe for overturning.

Sodomy laws applied only to homosexuals and bisexuals was a novel idea not grounded on our traditions, or our common law, or our Constitution.

1,307 posted on 06/26/2003 3:18:58 PM PDT by george wythe
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 1295 | View Replies ]


To: george wythe
Sodomy laws applied only to homosexuals and bisexuals was a novel idea not grounded on our traditions, or our common law, or our Constitution.

It applied to homosexuals, bisexuality is homosexuality. I contend sodomy laws pre 1960 were for homosexuals because no right minded person thought any different and yet here we are.

1,323 posted on 06/26/2003 3:39:17 PM PDT by Clint N. Suhks
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 1307 | View Replies ]

To: george wythe
As Scalia observed, sodomy, whether hetero- or homo- is what is outlawed. That's a compelling State interest in right order.
1,384 posted on 06/26/2003 4:53:33 PM PDT by ninenot (Joe McCarthy was RIGHT, but Drank Too Much)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 1307 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
News/Activism
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson