To: Clint N. Suhks
Can you cite any legislature before 1960 that defined sodomy as "heterosexual" as the distinguishing contextI'm not aware of any such law.
That's why the Texas sodomy law was ripe for overturning.
Sodomy laws applied only to homosexuals and bisexuals was a novel idea not grounded on our traditions, or our common law, or our Constitution.
To: george wythe
Sodomy laws applied only to homosexuals and bisexuals was a novel idea not grounded on our traditions, or our common law, or our Constitution. It applied to homosexuals, bisexuality is homosexuality. I contend sodomy laws pre 1960 were for homosexuals because no right minded person thought any different and yet here we are.
To: george wythe
As Scalia observed, sodomy, whether hetero- or homo- is what is outlawed. That's a compelling State interest in right order.
1,384 posted on
06/26/2003 4:53:33 PM PDT by
ninenot
(Joe McCarthy was RIGHT, but Drank Too Much)
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