Churchill had to wait until WWII ended before an election could take place in the UK.
Roosevelt didn’t. Lincoln didn’t. And if Z was so popular, and the Russian speaking areas and Crimea weren’t included... he should win in a landslide. Right? lol
>>>>Churchill had to wait until WWII ended before an election could take place in the UK.<<<<
Britain did hold elections during WWII.
On July 5, 1945 they held an election that resulted in Clement Attlee being elected Prime Minister, replacing Churchill.
There were also numerous elections to fill in empty seats in parliament during the war.
“Churchill had to wait until WWII ended before an election could take place in the UK.”
Not quite. The war in the Pacific was still going. Also, it is not the same as the Churchill war government. the British government during the war was a national coalition where all the major parties were included.
Offering faulty British history as an argument to Biden's support of Zelensky's current dictatorship suggests a Very Low IQ.
Parliament extended its normal 5 year election period during WWII. There were, however, elections held to fill vacant seats in Parliament.
Just because Churchill avoided election didn't mean it was something he had to do or that it was right. Lincoln managed to hold an election during a far more savage war between brothers. During the Civil War the gates of hell were opened up and Lincoln still made Churchill look small for avoiding elections.