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To: sphinx; BroJoeK
Germany can always recover its liabilities for WWII damages by suing France, which has invaded Germany far more times (ore-unification) than Germany has invaded France. -- Germany did not exist before 1870. France did not invade Germany until 1945.

And aren’t the French still owed reparations for Caesar’s conquest? the French of today are descendents of Caesars colonialists + the local Gauls, Acquitani and Belgae + some Frankish and Visigothic blood + increasingly genes from all over the world.

46 posted on 03/19/2018 6:31:22 AM PDT by Cronos (Obama's dislike of Assad is not based on his brutality but that he isn't a jihadi Moslem)
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To: Cronos; sphinx
Cronos: "Germany did not exist before 1870.
France did not invade Germany until 1945."

  1. In August 1870 the French briefly entered Saarbrucken, part of the Prussian Rhine Province.
    They were quickly defeated & withdrew.

  2. In August 1914 the French briefly entered Mulhouse in German Alsace.
    They met stiff resistance and quickly withdrew.

  3. In September 1939 the French briefly entered the German Saarland, but quickly withdrew starting the 8-month long "Phoney War".
As stand-alone operations taken out of context, these French actions were at least provocations, if not full-fledged acts of war.
But in all three cases, iirc, the larger context was Germans (or Prussians) who first threatened and then launched major invasions into France. Certainly that was true in 1914 and 1939.
48 posted on 03/19/2018 7:48:24 AM PDT by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective...)
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