To: Carry_Okie
It’s consistent because there’s a difference between common areas of an HOA and publicly-owned areas. Physically they may be the same, but there is a huge difference between the two that based entirely on who holds the underlying title to the property.
29 posted on
12/07/2013 11:45:01 AM PST by
Alberta's Child
("I've never seen such a conclave of minstrels in my life.")
To: Alberta's Child
Its consistent because theres a difference between common areas of an HOA and publicly-owned areas. Physically they may be the same, but there is a huge difference between the two that based entirely on who holds the underlying title to the property. That is a classic tautology of argument by definition. It is a legal distinction and not a functional distinction. That means it is internally consistent but not logically consistent.
31 posted on
12/07/2013 12:00:19 PM PST by
Carry_Okie
(0-Care IS Medicaid; they'll pull a sheet over your head and take everything you own to pay for it.)
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