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To: Alberta's Child
It’s consistent because there’s a difference between common areas of an HOA and publicly-owned areas. Physically they may be the same, but there is a huge difference between the two that based entirely on who holds the underlying title to the property.

That is a classic tautology of argument by definition. It is a legal distinction and not a functional distinction. That means it is internally consistent but not logically consistent.

31 posted on 12/07/2013 12:00:19 PM PST by Carry_Okie (0-Care IS Medicaid; they'll pull a sheet over your head and take everything you own to pay for it.)
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To: Carry_Okie
Of course it's a legal distinction and not a functional one. We're talking about tax law here, so everything relates to legal distinctions.

If a city owns and operates a zoo, it's a non-profit entity by definition. If you build a zoo and charge admission, you pay taxes on your profits.

I'm not sure why this is so problematic.

33 posted on 12/07/2013 12:48:29 PM PST by Alberta's Child ("I've never seen such a conclave of minstrels in my life.")
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