You know, after awhile, you become very familiar with these verses, and their references...
Begin here: in John 10:34, Jesus refers to himself as "Son of God" in the same sense as humans are called "gods" in Psalm 82:6.
It's a title of utmost respect, not a claim of deity.
In Hebrews 1:8 the author (Paul?) refers to Jesus using quotes from Psalm 45:6 in which, again, a human king is referred to as "God" -- a title of utmost respect, not a claim of deity.
FRiend, the Jews were then, and remain today, very particular on this point: there is only One God, and no matter what exalted titles we might give anybody else, they are not Him.
redleghunter: "Psalm 45 is an instance of the use for God, not gods or a god."
And yet, "God" in Psalm 45 clearly refers to a human king -- it's a title of utmost respect.
In that same sense, the OT Hebrew word for "worship" also means to bow down to a king.
So the author of Hebrews (Paul?) is telling us that Jesus Christ deserves the same level of respect as shown the king in Psalm 45.
redleghunter: "The Psalm 82 reference is clearly "gods" and not God.
To continue to use the God vs. Jesus Christ is "a god" argument you would have to explain some sort of pantheon explained in the OT scriptures.
There is no such pantheon."
But Psalm 82:6 is the reference Jesus makes in John 10:34, to demonstrate that the title "Son of God" is not blasphemy.
If humans can be called "gods", Jesus says, then his title "Son of God" cannot be blasphemy.
So, in both Psalms 45:6 and 82:6, the word "god" or "God" is a title of utmost respect for a human being, a title the New Testament writers believed also appropriate for Jesus.
redleghunter: "If you select 'god' for this verse in Hebrews, then you will have to change many more throughout the NT."
No, the appropriate understandings are the words and their contexts from the Old Testament Psalms, where "god" or "God" were used as terms of utmost respect for a human king.
redleghunter: "Is it The Father in Revelation 1 and Isaiah 44 or the Son?"
Is this a trick question?
Isaiah 44:6-8 obviously and only can refer to the God of Israel, as arguably does Revelation 1:8.
So is it the Father or Son in Revelation 1:8? The modifier is in verse 7. Discussed again in verse 9.