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To: BroJoeK; boatbums; metmom; GarySpFc
Isaiah 44:6-8 obviously and only can refer to the God of Israel, as arguably does Revelation 1:8.

So is it the Father or Son in Revelation 1:8? The modifier is in verse 7. Discussed again in verse 9.

2,626 posted on 12/30/2013 5:55:56 PM PST by redleghunter
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To: redleghunter
redleghunter: "So is it the Father or Son in Revelation 1:8? The modifier is in verse 7. Discussed again in verse 9."

In verse 6 Jesus has made us to be a kingdom to serve his God and Father.

Verse 7 describes Jesus "coming with the clouds", the reference being Daniel 7:13, where "one like a son of man" approached the "Ancient of Days" and was lead into His presence.

Next, in verse 8 the Lord God, "Alpha and Omega" speaks: clearly the Father Himself.

In verse 9, John himself speaks of the "word of God and the testimony of Jesus."
I understand those to be two separate beings.

This is presented in understandable form here.

FRiend, there are references and modifiers throughout those verses, so I "get" that somebody might wish to understand them differently.
But I don't see why a different understanding necessarily makes one a "God Damned Heretic".

2,646 posted on 01/01/2014 6:09:54 AM PST by BroJoeK (a little historical perspective....)
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