No! You apparently have never studied Greek.
The word Paul uses for God in Col. 2:9 (theotēs), translated “Deity,” is distinguished from another word (theiotēs) used often by ancient philosophers when referring to something or someone “divine.” The distinction is important for understanding Paul’s Christology. Christ is not “divine” in the sense that we speak of superb food as “simply divine” or of virtuous individuals as “godly.” Christ is much more than a superb person of godly virtue. Paul asserts that Christ Jesus is God in bodily form.
Col 2:9 is the only use of (theotēs) in the N.T. Clearly 2:9 does not refer to all Christians.
FRiend, the key to understanding here is realizing that, first and foremost, New Testament writers were all Jews, and while they certainly believed in Christ's divinity, they would, as Jews, in no possible way compromise the Oneness of God.
If that creates certain theological problems, I would suggest those can well remain unanswered, since obviously nobody knows enough to more concretely define God.
Firstly, I studied under a Jew for 9 years, and I understand their beliefs.
Secondly, Luke was a NT writer and a gentile.
Thirdly, God defines His attributes throughout the Word.
Fourthly, you are wrong on all points.
Yes, but Ephesians 3:19 does, and with the same "fullness" you used to claim Paul wants us to believe that Jesus is God Himself.
GarySpFc: "Firstly, I studied under a Jew for 9 years, and I understand their beliefs. Secondly, Luke was a NT writer and a gentile. Thirdly, God defines His attributes throughout the Word. Fourthly, you are wrong on all points."
And Luke says explicitly that Jesus is God Himself where, exactly?