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To: restornu
Interesting you ignore Hebrews 9:27. Guess that’s the LDS way, ignore passages which prove your theology wrong and twist passages which you think support it rather than using proper biblical exegesis. Rather you resort to eisegesis (from www.dictionary.com “an interpretation, esp. of Scripture, that expresses the interpreter's own ideas, bias, or the like, rather than the meaning of the text”). Of course this is no surprise that you would fall victim to this faulty interpretation method as we all know that you follow a false prophet. This means of course that ALL subsequent teachings, including passages of Scripture and what they mean are going to be in error. Obviously you need to be properly instructed so let’s look at what I Peter 3:19-22 REALLY means shall we????

“Between Christ’s death and resurrection, His living spirit went to the demonic spirits bound in the abyss and proclaimed that, in spite of His death, He [Christ] had triumphed over them, i.e, spirits in prison. This phrase, ‘spirits in prison’ refers to fallen angels (demons) who were permanently bound because of heinous wickedness. The demons who are not so bound resist such a sentence (cf. Luke 8:31). In the end, they will all be sent to the eternal lake of fire (Matt. 25:41; Rev. 20:10).” (The MacArthur Study Bible, c1997 Word Publishing; pp. 1945-46).

“I Peter 3:19-20 - Some believe Peter here referred to the descent of Christ’s Spirit into hades between His death and resurrection to offer people who lived before the Flood a second chance for salvation. However, this interpretation has no scriptural support.” (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord & Zuck, c1983, p. 851). The Greek word translated ‘spirits’ in this passage is pneumasin, a term usually applied to ‘supernatural beings’. Therefore, your erroneous contention that Christ preached to the dead somehow offering them a 2nd chance is a completely false interpretation of this passage. Furthermore such an idea ‘contradicts’ Hebrews 9:27 which is completely opposite. Remember: Scripture interprets Scripture…if another passage contradicts your perceived viewpoint, its your viewpoint which is in error.

Now onto I Peter 4:1-5 -

First off, there is absolutely NOTHING in that passage that would infer the Gospel being preached to the dead, talk about eisegesis! What it does mean is this:

“In light of the triumphant suffering and death of Christ, Peter’s readers should also be willing to suffer in the flesh, knowing that it potentially produces the greatest triumph…The Christian should be armed with the same thought that was manifest in the suffering of Christ, namely that one can be triumphant in suffering, even the suffering of death. In other words, the Christian should voluntarily accept the potential of death as a part of the Christian life (cf. Matt. 10:38, 39; 2 Cor. 4:8-11). Peter would have his opportunity to live this principle himself, when he faced martyrdom (see John 21:18, 19). [The phrase ‘has ceased from sin’] The perfect tense of the verb emphasizes a permanent eternal condition free from sin. The worst that can happen to a believer suffering unjustly is death, and that is the best that can happen because death means the complete and final end of all sins. If the Christian is armed with the goal of being delivered from sin, and that goal is achieved through his death, the threat and experience of death is precious (cf. Rom. 7:5, 18; I Cor. 1:21, 15:42, 49). Moreover, the greatest weapon that the enemy has against the Christian, the threat of death, is not effective. If the goal of the Christian’s life is the freedom from sin which comes at death, then he should live the remainder of his life on earth pursuing the holy will of God rather than the ungodly lusts of the flesh…..[In v. 5 ‘to give an account’] This verb means ‘to pay back’. People who have ‘walked in lewedness’ (v. 3) and who malign believers (v. 4) are amassing a debt to God which they will spend all eternity paying back…..All the unsaved, currently alive or dead, will be brought before the Judge, the Lord Jesus Christ at the Great White Throne Judgment (Rev. 20:11-15; cf. Rom. 3:19; 2 Thess. 1:6-10).” (The MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, c1997 p. 1946).

“Those who have spent their lives in indulgence and idolatry will someday give an account (apodosousin logon), lit., ‘give back a word or an account’; (cf. Matt. 12:36; Luke 16:2; Acts 19:40; Heb. 13:17). Peter warned that these people must one day face the One who is ready (i.e, willing) to judge. No one will escape this final judgment of the words and works of his earthly life, when Christ will judge both the living (zontas) and the dead (nekrous) (cf. Acts 10:42; Rom. 14:9; I Thess. 4:15; 2 Tim. 4:1).” (The Bible Knowledge Commentary, Walvoord & Zuck, c1983, p. 853).

You should pay particular attention to I Peter 4:5 for as you continue to proclaim a false Gospel via a false Prophet at the same time attacking those who preach the truth as you have done consistently on these boards: your own judgment is going to be SEVERE. This passage has absolutely NOTHING to do with giving the dead any sort of 2nd chance. And its your obvious twisting of Scripture in these 2 passages why no one should ever listen to any Mormon’s scriptural teaching – you follow a false prophet - ergo you get it wrong every single time.

Luke 16:24 - 24And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.

Please provide precise scriptural reference specifically referring to this instance by name where the rich man in the above passage was ever given a 2nd chance.

2,846 posted on 04/13/2008 12:08:22 PM PDT by conservativegramma
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To: conservativegramma
First off, there is absolutely NOTHING in that passage that would infer the Gospel being preached to the dead, talk about eisegesis! What it does mean is this:

The redemption was for those before and those present as well as for those yet unborn

This has nothing to do with second chance where ever you get that from, those who have never receive a witness from the Holy Spirit.(many like to assign that to the LDS an in most cases an x lds is where this most likely came from. Because they never receive the witness themselves.)

I don't need a scholar interpertation when the spirit of the Lord is the one who teaches for all who are willing to listen.

You amaze me when it is as clear as day

1 Peter 4
6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

Jesus spend endless hours speaking and on many it fell on deaf ears, and those who had ears to hear received the understanding by the Power of the spirit Lord!

Heb 10
15 Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before,

16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;

2,848 posted on 04/13/2008 12:42:10 PM PDT by restornu (They allow this little quibble over scripture to blind them!)
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To: conservativegramma
Guess that’s the LDS way, ignore passages which prove your theology wrong and twist passages which you think support it rather than using proper biblical exegesis.

Gentile; how have you found us out??

You will be admonished to NEVER do this again!!!!

--MormonDude(Do NOT do it AGAIN!)

2,867 posted on 04/13/2008 1:31:13 PM PDT by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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