"Uh, no, sorry...but thanks for playing! :-)"
Yes they are. Check out some of the ancient artifacts found in Macedonia, Greece:
Gold ring with the incised Greek inscription "DOROV" in Greek alphabet. From Sindos in Thessaloniki. It is dated to the second quarter of the 5th century B.C.
http://alexander.macedonia.culture.gr/2/21/211/21116/21116ek/00/ring.jpg
Sherd of a kylix with an incised inscription in Greek. It is dated to the third quarter of the 6th century B.C. from Sani in Greece.
http://alexander.macedonia.culture.gr/2/21/211/21116/21116ek/00/ostr.jpg
Here is a boundary settlement from 357-350 B.C. between villages and cities of a hilly Macedonian district enforced on the 'waring' local population after the intervening of King Philip II. The border of neighbouring places are defined with reference to rivers, hills, pavements, roads, sanctuaries and private fields. It is written in Greek for the local population. If as some theorize, that the locals and non-royal Macedonians did not speak Greek in those days, then this official document would not be in Greek.
http://alexander.macedonia.culture.gr/2/21/211/21116/21116ek/00/basilika.jpg
Well, without refighting the Macedonian independence movement (BTW, I'm a totally independent observer with no interest in either side's view), let's look at the time in question...Alexander's time, and his father's.
Philip II (Alexander's father) was Philip of Macedon. If he was Greek, why did he "conquer Greece" and raze all "Greek cities" that were in Macedonia? The fact is, Philip II was Macedonian, was King of Macedon, and did not consider himself "Greater Greek" or anything like that. When Alexander campaigned, his army had 4 times as many Macedonians as Greeks in it.
Finding artifacts with certain language markers does not mean the peoples were the same, or considered themselves to be such. And that was the point of the original comments made.
