Posted on 02/24/2004 6:38:39 AM PST by dead
Then why did he use it? What is it with the crappy math articles lately? Now we're going to have ignoramuses running around saying mathematicians can't prove 11 is prime and smirking at everything else they say as well.
Whatever they are.
bump
Any given mathematical statement (eg, 11 is a prime number) must either be true or false, right?The "primeness" of "11" is no more in doubt than any other proven theorem in Mathematics. The author is very misleading in his presentation of the example, though he then correctly states the reality in the subsequent paragraph, though he leaves out an important caveat: Gödel showed that there will exist some statements derivable in a mathematical system which can't be decided based on the axioms of that system. There is nothing, however, to prevent you from proving the statement true by appealing to axioms outside of the system you are working in.Wrong! Godel showed that however elaborate mathematics becomes, there will always exist some statements (not the above ones though) that can never be proved true or false.
But the point remains: any statement which is proveable by standard Mathematical proof techniques is NOT a "Gödel statement" and hence is NOT undecideable. That some statements are undecideable cast no doubt on the ones we can, and do eventually prove. There is no evidence that reality will turn out to be based on Gödelian statements, so it may not even be an issue for physicists.
That's true, but the original statement in question will none-the-less have been proven, and thus is no longer a Gödel statement, though there will now be new ones as you correctly point out.
"A manifold is a topological space which is locally Euclidean ..." source: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Manifold.html
"locally Euclidean" simply means that on short distance scales ("local") it exhibits the topological characteristics of flat Euclidean Geometry.
A topological space is the most primitive (least complex) mathematical structure:
In the chapter "Point Sets in General Spaces" Hausdorff (1914) defined his concept of a topological space based on the four Hausdorff Axioms.1. To each point x there corresponds at least one neighborhood U(x), and U(x) contains x.
2. If U(x) and V(x) are neighborhoods of the same point x, then there exists a neighborhood W(x) of x such that W(x) is a subset of the intersection of U(x) and V(x).
3. If y is a point in U(x), then there exists a neighborhood U(y) of y such that U(y) is a subset of U(x).
4. For distinct points x and y, there exist two disjoint neighborhoods U(x) and U(y).
source: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/TopologicalSpace.html
I'm afraid there's no good way to state this in laymans' terms without losing the precision of the axioms.
Well, no. He didn't say that. He gave the primality of 11 as an example of a mathematical truth, and then went on to say that the truth of some mathematical statements is undecidable.
I do disagree with Davies, however, that Gödel's theorem has anything to do with physics. Gödel's theorem only applies to certain types of formal systems. It is by no means clear that there exists no formal system appropriate for describing physics that is free from undecidable propositions. Furthermore, if even if all appropriate systems suffer this blind spot, it isn't clear that it would conceal anything important about the universe.
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