[ppaul]

The vast majority of pedophiles are heterosexual.

However, as a group, the percentage of pederasts in the practicing homosexual population is much higher, per capita, than the general population.
Why do you suppose that is?

(ANSWER: See #24 above)

[Qwerty]

"However, as a group, the percentage of pederasts in the practicing homosexual population is much higher, per capita, than the general population. Why do you suppose that is?"

(not cheating and looking up whatever was in #24 because it's late and I'm too tired) Because pederasty, by definition, can only be older male on younger male?