[Qwerty]

"However, as a group, the percentage of pederasts in the practicing homosexual population is much higher, per capita, than the general population. Why do you suppose that is?"

(not cheating and looking up whatever was in #24 because it's late and I'm too tired) Because pederasty, by definition, can only be older male on younger male?

[ppaul]

I should also clarify that the percentage of pederasts in the homo poulation is higher than the TOTAL percentage of pedophiles per capita in the general population. Why do you suppose that is?

(See #24 above).