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When the Bible Becomes an Idol: Problems with the KJV-Only Doctrine
http://www.atlantaapologist.org/kjv.html ^

Posted on 08/07/2003 8:34:50 AM PDT by fishtank

click here to read article


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1 posted on 08/07/2003 8:34:50 AM PDT by fishtank
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To: fishtank
interesting. thanks.
2 posted on 08/07/2003 8:59:06 AM PDT by el_chupacabra (AMDG)
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To: RnMomof7; CARepubGal; CCWoody; drstevej; snerkel; Jean Chauvin; Wrigley
FYI.

self bump for read later.

3 posted on 08/07/2003 9:02:15 AM PDT by Wrigley
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To: el_chupacabra
"11. The KJV-only doctrine requires that we have some sort of faith in the KJV translators. KJV-only advocates constantly complain that if we don't have one sure Bible, the KJV, then we have to trust what scholars say about the text and its translation. But they are placing their faith solely in the KJV translators. A genuinely Protestant approach to the Bible requires that we not trust any one translator or translation team. Lay Christians can compare different translations to help get at the truth about any passage – or at least to become aware of possible disputes over the meaning of the passage."

Reminds me of another infallibility doctrine.............

4 posted on 08/07/2003 9:03:00 AM PDT by fishtank
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To: fishtank
Reminds me of another infallibility doctrine.............

It's the keys, man! The keys! (and the bound and loose stuff a course!) And you know it's only in matters of faith and morals, not personal opinions, right???

Anyhow, good article, thanks for posting it.

5 posted on 08/07/2003 9:05:27 AM PDT by american colleen
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To: american colleen
Hi Colleen, I don't agree with papal infallibility, but I do think it is more intellectualy defendable than KJV-onlyism.
6 posted on 08/07/2003 9:11:55 AM PDT by fishtank
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To: fishtank
SPOTREP
7 posted on 08/07/2003 9:16:21 AM PDT by LiteKeeper
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To: LiteKeeper
The meaning of that acronym is on Litekeeper's FR page.....................
8 posted on 08/07/2003 9:20:23 AM PDT by fishtank
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To: fishtank
Not scriptually defendable, mind you, but intellectually.
9 posted on 08/07/2003 9:21:02 AM PDT by fishtank
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To: el_chupacabra
Did Christ, the Apostles and the Old Testament prophets speak and write in Shakespearean (i.e., King James dialect) English? Rather, was it perhaps Aramaic, Hebrew, Greek, or perhaps even a little Latin and other tongues of the Middle East of thousands of years ago? If one is going to insist on scriptural purity, then one must learn to read the original languages (even through no original texts exist, nearly contemporaneous copies of many scriptures in the same languages continue to exist). The KJV-only assertion is more an indication of ignorance and intellectual distortion than any theological sound doctrine
10 posted on 08/07/2003 9:47:55 AM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: Lucky Dog
was this response intended for me? if so, I don't know why.

11 posted on 08/07/2003 10:05:18 AM PDT by el_chupacabra (AMDG)
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To: fishtank
I just knew this article wasn't posted by fortheDeclaration.
12 posted on 08/07/2003 10:12:32 AM PDT by connectthedots
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To: fishtank
Below is posted something I posted sometime ago on another thread. It provides a brief explaination on what the differences between the King James and other bibles in use today. Hoefully this will shed a little light.

A friend once told me that it was the Roman Catholic Church that preserved the Bible, and gave us the current Bibles we use today. He stated "who knows what was actually supposed to be in the Bible as we don’t know what is hidden away in their vaults". This question really intrigued me, and made me wonder myself. I had to do a little research but I pieced together the following (from various web sites, everything from the Vatican web site to several different denominational web sites). This turns out to be a multi-piece answer:

Prior to the King James Bible of 1611, there was not a “Bible” as we know it. There were the Antiochian manuscripts, which consisted of some 5000 Greek, Hebrew and Old Latin manuscripts. In addition to this, there is the Codex Vaticanus (aka Vatican Manuscript). This codex matches (somewhat) with two other sources known as Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Alexandrinus.

The Codex Vaticanus, Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Alexandrinus are known as the Minority Texts and originated from Alexandra, Egypt. The 5000+ Antiochian Manuscripts are known as the Majority texts, originating from Antioch, Syria.

The two most prominent of these, Vaticanus, which is sole property of the Roman Catholic Church, and Sinaiticus, are both known to be overwhelmed with errors. It is said that Sinaiticus has been corrected and altered by as many as ten different writers. In Vaticanus is found the evidence of very sloppy workmanship. Time and again words and whole phrases are repeated twice in succession or completely omitted, while the entire manuscript has had the text mutilated by some person or persons who ran over every letter with a pen making exact identification of many of the characters impossible.

Both manuscripts contain uninspired, anti-scriptural books which are not found in any Bible today.

The only place where these error laden, unreliable manuscripts excel is in the quality of the materials used on them. They have good bindings and fine animal skin pages. Their physical appearance, contrary to their worthless texts, are really rather attractive. But then we have all heard the saying, "You can't judge a book by its cover." The covers are beautiful but their texts are reprehensible.

All Bibles today use these three (yes, three!) Minority Manuscripts. The only exception is the Authorized King James Bible, which uses the 5000 greek Antiochian manuscripts Majority texts.

I myself have a personal affection for the King James Bible, so of course I will have a bias, but all my sources agree, if you want to read a Bible that is not influenced by the Vatican, then the King James Bible is it. The only reason the Apocrypha are included in the original 1611 edition is because Martin Luther (who had died a hundred plus years earlier) had voiced that while these were not inspired scripture, they were of good historical reading (later printings eventually removed the Apocrypha from the King James, though you can still order them with it included). The Vatican itself was so against the King James Bible, that in 1605, they attempted to have King James killed (one of Guy Fawkes objectives), hoping to stop the research and printing of the Bible, even hoping to put the Pope or a puppet of the Popes on the English throne.

13 posted on 08/07/2003 10:49:06 AM PDT by The Bard (http://www.reflectupon.com/)
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To: The Bard
Prior to the King James Bible of 1611, there was not a “Bible” as we know it.

Sorry, but that's simply not true. The Geneva Bible pre-dated the KJV by 50 years, which by the way was also translated from the Majority Texts.

14 posted on 08/07/2003 12:19:11 PM PDT by Frumanchu (mene mene tekel upharsin)
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To: Frumanchu
Prior to the King James Bible of 1611, there was not a “Bible” as we know it.

Hey! Wait a sec! I thought Catholics forbid people to read the Bible until the Protestants did their own translation??? Now I find out that no Bible existed before 1611??? What's up with that?

15 posted on 08/07/2003 12:33:04 PM PDT by american colleen
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To: Frumanchu; The Bard
sorry! #15 is for the bard.

I can't figure out how the books contained in the Bible were codified by the Council of Carthage in 397 AD when the Bible didn't exist??? What were people using before 1611?

16 posted on 08/07/2003 12:35:31 PM PDT by american colleen
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To: american colleen
What were people using before 1611?

The Geneva Bible, of course.

17 posted on 08/07/2003 12:49:31 PM PDT by A. Patriot
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To: fishtank
In my humble opinion, when denominations ordain ministers who have never gone to seminary, the result is "KJV Only" churches and movements.

At "real" seminaries, the history of the development of the Bible is taught.

I don't use the KJV because I find that there are too many archiac words not in use today and it distracts from my understanding of a passage. I don't mind the "thys and thous. I mostly use the New King James version.

When I do research, I use the internet. I go to BibleGateway.com and look at several versions, always including the King James.

18 posted on 08/07/2003 1:16:34 PM PDT by A. Patriot
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To: A. Patriot
OK, but what were people using before the 1550s? Like, where did all those chained up phone book Bible stories come from if the bible didn't exist before then?
19 posted on 08/07/2003 1:16:41 PM PDT by american colleen
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To: american colleen
Probably the Latin Vulgate was used.
20 posted on 08/07/2003 1:20:00 PM PDT by fishtank
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