The Fathers of the Church taught that Mary received a number of distinctive blessings in order to make her a more fitting mother for Christ and the prototypical Christian (follower of Christ). These blessings included her role as the New Eve (corresponding to Christ’s role as the New Adam), her Immaculate Conception, her spiritual motherhood of all Christians, and her Assumption into heaven. These gifts were given to her by God’s grace. She did not earn them, but she possessed them nonetheless.
Even before the terms "original sin" and "immaculate conception" had been defined, early passages imply the doctrines. Many works mention that Mary gave birth to Jesus without pain. But pain in childbearing is part of the penalty of original sin (Gen. 3:16). Thus, Mary could not have been under that penalty. By God’s grace, she was immaculate in anticipation of her Son’s redemptive death on the cross. The Church therefore describes Mary as "the most excellent fruit of redemption" (CCC 508).
"So the Virgin became a mother with great mercies. And she labored and bore the Son, but without pain, because it did not occur without purpose. And she did not seek a midwife, because he caused her to give life. She bore as a strong man, with will . . . " (Odes of Solomon 19 [A.D. 80]).
None of them inspired works.The early church was under heavy pagan influence just looking for a Goddess
If a baptised woman goes to confession (and is therefor sinless ) can she have a painless delivery?
Good point NYer. This is what is meant by the Virgin Birth, "Behold a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son etc." (Isaiah 7.14). The Bible clearly states Mary is a virgin both in conceiving Christ and in giving birth to Him. It is said, Christ passed through Mary into the world as light passes through a window, without violating her Virginity. The only way this is possible would be if Blessed Mary were exempt from the penalties of Origial Sin by the special privilege of God.