Actually, if possible, I would like to keep the discussion strickly within the framework and events of the Book of Numbers. What I am asking is, when that specific generation of Israelites left Egypt, as they were leaving, did God know about their failure to trust in Him and listen to the spies negative report about Canaan? (Num. 13, 14)
Also, in a similar situation, did God know when He chose Moses to lead His people out of Egypt, did God know that Moses would strike the rock twice, thus preventing Moses to enter the land of Canaan? (Num. 20:1-13)
I understand that, but the reason I brought out the Acts 2 passage is because it is very applicable in knowing how God works in history.
I could ask the same question you do about Christ's death. Did God know about the failure of the Pharisees and Saducees to trust in Christ? Did he know about the fact that they would crucify Jesus? Did God know that the people would choose Barabbas over Jesus? Did God know that Jesus would be put to death on a cross?
Acts 2 and 1 Peter 1 answer that question. Of course God knew all the events surrounding Christ's death on the cross. He knew because that's the way he pre-determined those events to happen. Not only that, but the Bible clearly says that those who carried out the murder of Christ are "wicked" for doing so.
Both things are true. I might not have the ability to explain to the finite human mind how this can be so -how both God ordaining certain events to occur and those who carried out those events are, at the same time, guilty and wicked for doing so. Nonetheless, the Scriptures clearly give us this truth.
Then there are those like the esteemed ftD who don't really like what the scriptures say and attempt to add words to the text. Foreknowledge becomes "foreknowing men's free-will actions". Sorry, it don't say that! If that ~were~ the ONLY determining factor in those events, then it would be a lie for the scriptures to declare that ~GOD~ ordained these events to be so.
No, the "foreknowledge" isn't indicative of men's "free-will" actions. "Foreknowledge" is indicative of God's omniscience. He simply KNOWS these things to occur. He KNOWS they will occur because he deterimined and ordained them to occur.
To look at things a slightly differnt way, consider God's promise to provide for us our basic daily needs (Matt 6:25-34).
Now, because God has promised to provide for our needs, do we simply sit around the house posting on FreeRepublic all the while waiting for the food to magically appear on the table and for the bills to magically be paid? Of course not, we need to work for what we get. WE are responsible for earning a living and providing shelter and clothing (1 Tim. 5:8), nevertheless, at the same time, it is GOD who provides.
BOTH causes are true!
Likewise, even though it is God who determines the course of history, it is man who is responsible for his own deeds.
Yes, God knew that Moses would strike the rock because he determined that this occur. Nevertheless, Moses is fully responsible for his sin and anger.
For a more detailed exposition of God's providential actitions, read the article I posted yesterday:
The Church's Witness to the World
Jean
That would prevent the Calvinists from appealing to their little set of proof-texts.
Being 'cultic' in nature, they are unable to do so.
What I am asking is, when that specific generation of Israelites left Egypt, as they were leaving, did God know about their failure to trust in Him and listen to the spies negative report about Canaan? (Num. 13, 14) Also, in a similar situation, did God know when He chose Moses to lead His people out of Egypt, did God know that Moses would strike the rock twice, thus preventing Moses to enter the land of Canaan? (Num. 20:1-13)
Yes, God 'foreknew' both, but God did not cause both!
The issue is Omniscience which knows all the possible as well as the actual.
What that generation was going to do was always foreknown by God, but they did not have to choose as they did. Had they chosen correctly God would have had another plan for them.