Of course. But the "2 resurrection, Rev 20 way" definitely is the amillennial way.
My goodness, the ONLY two resurrections mentioned in John 5:25-29 are:
1) regeneration-unto-conversion--which is not a single event, but a phenomenon taking place throughout the gospel era (John 5:25); and
2) the single bodily resurrection of all the physically dead at the time of the single Judgment of believers and unbelievers (John 5:28-29).
The take-home point, for those who have wisdom, is that John 5:29 does not permit two worldwide bodily resurrection episodes. You have to LIE to fit a thousand years between the postulated literal, mass resurrection episodes.
IT RIGOROUSLY FOLLLOWS FROM THIS THAT THE FIRST RESURRECTION IN REVELATION 20 IS NOT A LITERAL RESURRECTION, BUT IS, INSTEAD,THE VERY THING WHICH THE LORD IS TALKING ABOUT IN JOHN 5:25.
This is not spiruitual rocket science. But it requires the kind of sobriety which carnal Christians just don't have.
And I don't have to run about trying to defend the indefensible.....that satan is currently imprisoned and that we are now in Christ's millenial age of peace.
Hey, I am at peace. I am seated with Christ on His throne right now.
I'll ask you again: according to the amil philosophy, what is it that satan is NOT able to do? Specifically.
Satan can do whatever God permits him to do. That includes fostering the premillennial lie, of course.
But he cannot block the spread of the gospel to Gentile nations.
A clearer way to say this is that the premills need for there to be two mass, bodily resurrections in John 5:25-29, but the resurrection mentioned in v.25 is not a bodily resurrection.
That, in turn, means that the premills need for there to be two mass, bodily resurrections in John 5:28-29. Moreover, the premills need for these to be separated by a literal thousand years. Moreover, the premills need to have believers and unbelievers appearing before the Judgment throne of Christ a thousand years apart.
But John 5:28-29 flatly contradicts the above scenario. It is clearly telling us that there is single bodily resurrection episode for all souls. So, the premill claims are a SATANIC FRAUD.
Thus, the first resurrection mentioned in Revelation 20 is the same one mentioned in John 5:25. The first resurrection in the millennial kingdom of Christ is regeneration-unto-conversion.
Cute, huh? It is just a visionary presentation of our privileges in the gospel. And this is why it's the only place in the entire Bible which explicitly refers to "the thousand years."
The fact that the first resurrection is merely one's experience of conversion unto Christ is why Revelation 20 says "Blessed and holy is the one who has a part in the first resurrection; over these the second death has no power." In other words, this verse is saying precisely the same thing which the Lord said in verse 24 of John 5.
BTW, the fact that the first resurrection in Revelation 20 is not a literal, bodily resurrection also explains something else which the premills are forced to ignore in Revelation 20. The text says "I saw the souls of those who were beheaded."
This strained grammar is telling us that he saw disembodied spirits. They did not have their physically resurrected bodies--because the first resurrection doesn't resurrect their bodies anyway! They were still awaiting their resurrected bodies--i.e., from the second resurrection, of course!
By the way, you should also ask yourself why Revelation 20 describes the disembodied souls as having been "beheaded" rather than fed to the lions or burned to death or the like. (I'll give you a hint: they were not literally beheaded anymore than they were literally resurrected.)
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Like I said, the literal reading is a trap for the enemies of God. Alas, a few of His true disciples have misunderstood the Lord, but this also happened with His disciples during His earthly ministry.
And I would remind you that the Lord explicitly declared that He used figurative language in order that His enemies would not understand. So, it is not at all wise to presume that Revelation 20 should be read literally. In fact it is stupid to assume that. We have to figure out how to read it. We have to use clearer Scriptures like John 5:25-29 to figure out whether it is to be read literally or non-literally. And John 5:28-29 actually CRUSHES the smug premills' reading.
So does 2 Peter 3.
So, don't scoff at the amills. To do so is to scoff at God Himself.
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Based on the history of your stubbornness on these threads, I assume that you will not come around, xzins. That's fine with me. When the Lord returns, I'm gonna win the argument.