I do not see how you reconcile your two statements.
Did Christ die for all men?. Does all mean all of every kind? Or was it not an atonemet at all? Was it simple an opportunity for the men that figured it out to be saved?
You know this is an important doctrinal question posed with my usual two left feet..but it is the basis of what we believe
If you do not want to explain what you believe and why you believe it I think there is a spot for you at hobbits hole :>)
Thanks for the real question.
Christ's death was sufficient to cover the sin of all men of all time AND God's desire was that all men be saved.
The terms of the covenant, however, were that men had to believe in order to appropriate the benefit of the sacrifice. The sacrifice was effective for believers only.
To God Believing is not a work of righteousness per Romans 4:5...In this scripture, on the one hand you have "work" and on the other hand you have "belief."
Romans 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.