“With the first seal the key words are given which characterize God’s wrath: war, famine, pestilence.
...war and famine and pestilence are the hallmarks of God’s wrath upon the Hebrews.”
So...hallmark allusions mean for sure it’s “wrath” but the EXPLICIT DECLARATION “Bowls of Wrath” has zero implication that what came before WASN’T?
How is that at all an acceptable hermeneutic? Denying the explicit while promoting the supposed?
Was WWI “wrath” then?
The Tohoku quake and tsunami?
COVID?
Ya got war and pestilence looking straight atcha. Wrath or no?
If not, what marked trait determines when war is wrath and which is not? Which famines and pestilences are “wrath” and which aren’t, and how can we know?
Isn’t it a little embarrassing to have to shuck and jive all around this stuff, when — if you’d just read the text literally — it flat TELLS you “Bowls of Wrath”? Could God have made it any more clear?
You raise non sequiturs a plenty. Was Jesus opening a seal when WWI broke out? Have you even bothered to read the passages in Isa, Zach, and EZ which deal with the topic at hand or are you just determined to hang onto your pre-wrath notion regardless?
Sorry, it is you who is shuckin’ and jivin’, to skip around the biblical evidence that God uses suggogates to deliver His war and famine and pestilence. By your specious appeal to any war or famine it is plain that you need that undistributed midle fallacy to support your error.