No, no. Sorry. I should have been more clear:
Have you changed your stance since the last thread we were on regarding the audience in Acts 2:5?
No, I haven't
Acts 2:5 is first to all Jews for "Salvation comes from the JEws" and then what happens just a few verses later?My stance is the same - that the audience was both Jews and Gentiles.9 We are Parthians, Medes, and Elamites, inhabitants of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the districts of Libya near Cyrene, as well as travelers from Rome, 11 both Jews and converts to Judaism, Cretans and Arabs, yet we hear them speaking in our own tongues of the mighty acts of God.”Yup, gentiles -- the Jesus-movement was of Jews and Gentiles -- as there is no more Greek nor Jew, but believers in Christ
I don't read anything in the Biblical texts of a separate Jewish and a separate Gentile church. Neither do I see that historically
On the contrary in the Bible I read "there is no Jew and no Gentile" and that "outsiders" are invited to the wedding party and that Gentiles are grafted on to the vine that is Judaism
historically I see the Jesus-movement as just another sect of 2nd temple Judaism -- and what we call "Jews" today are really "rabbinical Judaism" created by Rabbi BEn Zakkai in AD 70 to adjust to the destruction of the 2nd temple as prophesied by Jesus in the Olivet discourse.