[MurphsLaw]

So THEN tell me WHY DID John baptize Jesus ???? IF our Lord HAD NO SINS to repent? Why did he need Baptism? Or is it your contention Christ was a sinner too then? Unfortunately the Bible does not offer us those exact details required for a judge or jury....but letting everyone decide for themselves is a disaster just the same...

The Holy Family were an observing Jewish family, the Bible gives us no reason to believe they would not practice the laws of the the Torah and Temple rituals...Christ tells us he even came to fulfill the Law, not Abolish them.....

Mary was "made Grace" before the Annunciation....although we say "full of Grace" the exact greek grammatical translation is that she was in fact "made Grace" and this was not a result of her being with Child when the Angel came upon her...how could this be?

[ealgeone]

Mary was "made Grace" before the Annunciation....although we say "full of Grace" the exact greek grammatical translation is that she was in fact "made Grace" and this was not a result of her being with Child when the Angel came upon her...how could this be?

No...the Greek translation should be rendered, "Greetings, favored one."

For Rome to be correct on this a number of verses have to be negated which notes all created beings are sinners.