The Greek text there is the Word of God.
Posted on 09/05/2018 10:41:16 AM PDT by fishtank
I reject that line of thinking.
Likewise...
There are some of another RACE in America who say that I cannot say the N-word because I am not a N.
God used Greek and Aramaic as well.
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No, he only used Hebrew to the Hebrew people.
The Greek translations of NT writings are corrupted from the words that Yehova gave his apostles. Those corruptions are what created the “inherited lies wherein there is no profit” spoken of by Jeremiah.
The 4th chapter of Daniel was given to another people.
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We’ve had this exchange before, and we both know what will come of it.
I have not herd that before either. Mind telling me where in Romans Paul tells us “Hebrew is the only language in which Yehova has communicated with man. (Paul told us this in his epistle to the Romans)”
If you deny that the NT is theopneustos, then you deny God Himself.
See here for some of the better scholarship on the canon:
https://www.michaeljkruger.com/
WE have; but I’ll just bet some OTHER folks might like to know to what you are referring.
Oh???
Acts 2 New International Version (NIV)
1 When the day of Pentecost came, they were all together in one place. 2 Suddenly a sound like the blowing of a violent wind came from heaven and filled the whole house where they were sitting. 3 They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them. 4 All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them.
5 Now there were staying in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven. 6 When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard their own language being spoken.
The entire crowd assembled there at the temple were devout, believing Hebrew people there to celebrate Shavuot (AKA “Pentecost”)
Is that not your understanding too?
It was one of the commanded feasts that drew huge crowds.
The Greek translations thereof are partly representative of the original words, but not completely so.
If you adhere to the Greek translations, you are denying important portions of the true words where the Greek translations are confusion.
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The “NT” is the words recorded by the disciples and apostles in their native Hebrew language.
The Greek translations thereof are partly representative of the original words, but not completely so.
If you adhear to the Greek translations, you are denying important portions of the true words where the Greek translations are confusion.
Romans 3:1,2
What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
The Aramaic words of Nebuchadnezzer recorded in Daniel 4 were delivered to the kingdom of Nebuchadnezzar.
The Greek text there is the Word of God.
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The Greek text is a Greek translation of almost the word of God.
From whence do you get these ideas?
Your church?
A book?
Some author?
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The Hebrew words of the NT writings cannot in most cases be translated to Greek and still remain coherent representations of the original thoughts.
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From whence do you get these ideas?
Your church?
A book?
Some author?
.
From the existence of the Hebrew from Spain in the Vatican archives. (a high percentage of the NT)
The Greek has been screaming for over a millenium that it was sloppily copied from Hebrew letters.
For a simple example, no Jew would ever have written “a feast of the jews...” They would have named the feast, since they are of great importance doctrinally.
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It’s been three days, has anyone seen John McCain?
5.56mm
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