I'm sorry but I just get totally lost in this philosophy. There isn't anything in scripture you could provide is there?
The flesh of the Son is not God, but only the express image of him that is invisible.
Paul states (among other things):
Col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.
Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
Col 1:19 For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;
Isaiah 9:6.... do you think that God the Father is not anywhere in that verse?
A better question is do you not believe that the verse is talking about Christ in calling Him the Eternal Father? These are, according to Isaiah, names ascribed to the Messiah. After all, they made a musical of it.
**I’m sorry but I just get totally lost in this philosophy. There isn’t anything in scripture you could provide is there?**
“It is the Spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life”. John 6:63
The words you speak define you. The Son said his words were not his, but the Father’s (John 12:49,50).
Now when one, that is under the guidance of the Spirit of God, speaks, that person is not speaking of himself, but for God. The Son operated almost constantly in that fashion. There are are very few instances where his will tried to speak, such as: “..Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless, not what I will, but what thou wilt.” Mark 14:36
**Paul states....Col. 1:16 “For by him were all things created..”**
Why did you not also highlight “the firstborn of every creature” in the previous verse?
How do you address the heretofore avoided Isaiah 42:1-7, especially verse 5?
Paul, under inspiration, also said this:
“But to us there is but ONE God, the Father, OF whom are all things, and we IN him; and ONE Lord Jesus Christ, BY whom are all things, and we BY him.” 1Cor. 8:6
Another witness:
“Every good gift, and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the FATHER of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning. Of HIS OWN WILL begat HE us with the WORD of TRUTH, that we should be a kind of firstfruits of his creatures”. James 1:17,18
The Son is the express image of God, the firstborn of every creature. The first being that is both Spirit and flesh. By his existence, and the power of God his Father, all of the rest of creation was brought about.
**A better question is do you not believe that the verse is talking about Christ in calling Him the Eternal Father?**
When the end comes, Christ will deliver “up the kingdom to God, even the Father..” (1Cor. 15:26). How does that fit with your coequal persons theory?
I just keep it simple: Christ said the Father is in him doing the works. When is the Father not in the Son?