[Jeremiah Jr]

Surely Our Fathers Have Inherited Lies!

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=U_PKyiW6b1Q

The Festival of Chanukah

Dedicated against Assimilation

http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holidays/Winter_Holidays/Chanukah/chanukah.html

[Ezekiel]

And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew...

It's like the little instruction papers or booklets that come with everything these days, written in a zillion languages.

If people aren't paying attention, it doesn't matter what language is written.

[Bethaneidh]

Yes, in that day and time virtually everyone was trilingual, even fishermen.

[boatbums]

Some believe that the New Covenant was originally written in Greek, this view is incorrect. The Hebrew language was never a dead language and this view shows great ignorance of Jewish life in general and Chanukah in particular.

Whoever these "some" people are, they are correct. We have NO evidence that the New Testament books were originally written in Hebrew, in fact, there is unassailable evidence that GREEK was the language they were written in. No one is arguing that Jesus spoke Hebrew and Aramaic but when His words were written down in the Gospels, the writers used Greek. Greek was the lingua franca of the time - it was one of the main reasons the Septuagint was created so that Greek speaking Jews had their Scriptures and other books in the language they spoke, which was Greek.

Don't forget, many of the epistles were addressed to Gentiles who would not be native Hebrew speakers. Finally, we have thousands of manuscripts copies - some partial, some complete - of Greek language writings of the Apostles and disciples of Jesus. If these books had originally been in Hebrew, why don't we have any manuscripts of them? Could some of the NT books been translated into Hebrew? Sure, but they were originally written in Greek. The incorrect view is that they were originally in Hebrew.

[Zionist Conspirator]

There is no ancient Hebrew "new testament." All such Hebrew "new testaments" are modern translations.

How can a late nineteenth century translation from (I assume) Greek suddenly become "the original article?"

[Flaming Conservative]

Any Jew, who studied the Scriptures, for themselves, would have had to read Hebrew, as the Scriptures were all Old Testament writings, written in Hebrew. It is my understanding that the Scribes, Pharisees, Sadducees, and other “doctors” of the Law, read and interpreted the Scriptures for those who could not read them, themselves. That is why they were so amazed, when Jesus came into the Temple, opened the Book, read it out loud, then, “And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.” Luke 4:21