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To: morphing libertarian

Jesus lived and died decades before Hadrian was the Roman emperor. So, the area was not called Palestine until after the time of Jesus.


11 posted on 03/21/2017 8:45:47 AM PDT by reg45 (Barack 0bama: Gone but not forgiven.)
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To: reg45

I am aware of both Jesus and the emperor Hardian and tiers they were on earth. but thanx for the reminder. The issue was that there was never a Palestine and that is what i addressed. If the Romans were in charge and hey callee dit Palestina then there was a Palestina.


12 posted on 03/21/2017 9:14:15 AM PDT by morphing libertarian
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To: reg45

Luke has “Ioudaia” (Judaea) for the area governed by Pilate and “Galilaia” (Galilee) for the northern area under Herod Antipas the tetrarch, but Herodotus in the 5th century BC already mentions “Syrie Palaistine” (Palestinian Syria), but it isn’t clear what the boundaries were—whether it is just the area where the Philistines had lived or a larger area. This was during the period of Persian rule. “Palestine” comes from “Philistines” (Peleset). Since the Philistines had long since assimilated by the fifth century perhaps the name had been used by the earlier empires which controlled the region.


17 posted on 03/21/2017 11:28:50 AM PDT by Verginius Rufus
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