It might also suggest that Revelation was created by a much later Roman writer for whom the events in Jerusalem held little cultural significance. The refernce to Nero could be explained as a look back in anger or resentment to the decadence and failure of an eariler Roman administration in the same way that we still critize the policy failures of FDR or LBJ today.
We know that by the late 2nd Century Rome was already in irreversible decline with the silver content of the Denarius reduced by 1/3 from the time of Nero. With that kind of inflation and social erosion, the writer may have felt that the end of the world was already at hand.
“It might also suggest that Revelation was created by a much later Roman writer for whom the events in Jerusalem held little cultural significance. “
No. If there was a “much later Roman writer”, then EVERYTHING in Revelation would have “held little cultural significance.” Seven churches in Asia, Judaism, the Temple, Jerusalem, the Jewish/Christian concept of angels, Heaven, apocalyptic genre - all of it.
Also, the idea that “the events in Jerusalem held little cultural significance” to a Roman makes no sense when you realize they built this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arch_of_Titus
“The refernce to Nero could be explained as a look back in anger or resentment to the decadence and failure of an eariler Roman administration in the same way that we still critize the policy failures of FDR or LBJ today.”
Again, no. Since the author uses Nero = 666 and that only works in Greek from a Hebrew original, the chances it was a Roman author is zero. How many authors would even bother to write a Jewish/Christian book in Greek let alone one that was reliant on Hebrew coded numbers?
“We know that by the late 2nd Century Rome was already in irreversible decline with the silver content of the Denarius reduced by 1/3 from the time of Nero.”
We might know that, but that doesn’t mean they understood it that way. Also, the Roman Empire really only died in 1453 when Constantinople fell. Even Rome really only fell in the 5th century - more than 300 after Revelation was written.
“With that kind of inflation and social erosion, the writer may have felt that the end of the world was already at hand.”
Doubtful since at that time Rome was enjoying a relatively stable period which would last for another 200 years.
There’s no evidence that the author was a “much later Roman”. Why would he write in Greek about Jewish/Christian things and ignore the most obvious of Jewish/Christian things while doing it?