He posted a statement from one of YOUR OWN POPES and cited it.
Your argument is not with him but with your pope who proclaimed it.
Is he wrong and if you think so, on what basis of authority do you get to decide that?
He posted and cited a statement that he doesn't even understand.
What kind of subjection is Unam Sanctam talking about? Political subjection? Dogmatic? Ecclesiastical obedience? Matters of personal opinion? Which is it? Because we *are* all subject to the Roman Pontiff (even heretics and pagans) in some ways but not in others. And that was as true in 1302 as it is now.
"Ya'll gotta do what he says."....really? Do we?