If a person were to be conceived without Original Sin, that person would have been saved from Original Sin. And thus, it would be true to say that she had a Savior.
But, since she was saved from Original Sin by her Savior, she would never have committed a personal sin, and so would not be a “sinner.”
Thus, she would be a sinless person who was saved, by her Savior.
Thus, Mary’s reference to “God my savior” does not imply that she was a sinner.
But, since she was saved from Original Sin by her Savior, she would never have committed a personal sin, and so would not be a “sinner.â€
Thus, she would be a sinless person who was saved, by her Savior.
Thus, Mary’s reference to “God my savior†does not imply that she was a sinner
This "logic" is about as twisted as it comes. Mary was born. She was human. Thus, she was born into Original Sin because EVERYONE since the Fall has been born into Original Sin with ONE EXCEPTION: JESUS CHRIST.
The fact that she was saved and called God her "savior" IMPLIES EXACTLY that she was a sinner.
The only way your logic works is if you are in Bizarro World.
Hoss
I’m not sure what they teach in catholic seminaries but Greek doesn’t appear to be a priority. Douay-Rheims continues with the incorrect translation of Gabriel’s greeting to Mary.....though they’ve been shown this error over and over and over again.
Lot of assumin' goin' on here!
The jury will note that no evidence to this 'fact' has been shown to the court.
Rome HAS to make it's Mary sinless; so that she has the POWER to do all the stuff it has claimed her to be able to do.