Replies

I’ve heard it said also that even if these passages are saying that a bishop should be married “to one wife” in order to be a bishop (that is he should have a wife before being a bishop) then the Catholic system still doesn’t violate the Scriptures in question because it can also be said, in a certain sense, a bishop (being a priest) is already married but not to a woman rather to the bride of Christ the Church.

I have since abandoned this apologetic however in favor of what Staples says here. It just makes more clear sense to me. That’s not to say the above isn’t valid too. I just prefer it as explained here.