[Salvation]

There are accounts from Paul baptizing entire households. We believe that there were probably infants among them.

Look for the example of Lydia’s household.

[GilesB]

Thanks for the response.

I have a hard time basing a foundational point of doctrine on an assumption that a) there were infants in the household and b) the term “entire household” did not mean all of the household old enough to make a choice.

I appreciate the circumcision argument, but if baptism replaces circumcision in the new church, wouldn’t that argument have been made during the debate in Acts 15 about circumcision for new, Gentile believers? Not conclusive proof - but something that makes me question.

And no, it is not incumbent upon me to prove the negative, a logical impossibility, the burden is on those who choose infant baptism to make that case. Everywhere in the New Testament where it speaks of salvation and redemption, it involves the choice of the sinner - so it seems out of step with the preponderance of the teaching to baptize infants as the act of salvation and redemption; and therefore this apparent aberration requires clear and compelling explanation.

I am not dogmatic about this, but I don’t see sound foundational evidence to support the practice.